Kamis, 12 Mei 2016

Contoh Soal TOEFL Versi 2

Listening
Listening Comprehension Part A
1. (A) Her notebook is missing.
    (B) Her handwriting is difficult to read.
    (C) She wasn't in class this morning, either.
    (D) She's already lent her notes to someone else.
2. (A) Get a schedule of events at the athletic cente
    (B) Refer to the bus schedule.
    (C) Wait for the shuttle in the student lounge . ¡¡
    (D) Borrow a schedule from another student .
3. (A) She looks good in blue.
    (B) She never wears sweaters.
    (C) She might prefer another color.
    (D) She enjoys receiving gifts.
4. (A)Someone painted it for her.
    (B) She finally had time to paint it.
    (C) She decided to paint it later.
    (D) Some friends will help her paint it.
5. (A) Today's seminar was informative.
    (B) Another seminar will take place the following week.
    (C) Next week's seminar is on a different topic .
    (D) There will be two seminars next week.
6. (A) He's usually happy.
    (B) He listens to music when he's in a good mood.
    (C) He had to pay a high price for his stereo.
    (D) He's pleased with his purchase.

7. (A) He can send the woman additional information.
    (B) The woman received the wrong bill.
    (C) He agrees that the charges are too high.
    (D) He'll credit the woman's account.
8. (A) Answer her calls.
    (B) Take her home.
    (C) Write out a list of his calls.
    (D) Telephone her later in the day.
9. (A) Taking a test.
    (B) Giving Spanish tests to students.
    (C) Paying for private lessons.
    (D) Studying.
10. (A) The window is broken.
      (B) He's nervous about opening the window.
      (C)It's not possible to open the window.
      (D) It's too cold to open the window.

11. (A) He wasn't offered the job he had talked about .
      (B) He didn't really want to work in the
bookstore .
      (C) He didn't know where the bookstore was.
      (D) He didn't refuse the bookstore job.

12. (A) She needed to change the letter before mailing
it.
      (B) She didn't know how much postage was
needed.
      (C) She didn't have the right coins to buy
stamps.
      (D) The stamp machine has been moved .
13. (A) They should go to lunch soon.
      (B) He needs to make more coffee for lunch .
      (C) There is enough coffee for several more cups.
      (D) He won't drink any more coffee today.

14. (A)There are too many shopping centers
already.
      (B) They aren't really going to build a shopping
center.
      (C) He knew about the planned construction .
      (D) He hasn't been to the other shopping center .
15. (A) She has to do some work tomorrow.
      (B) She'll attend tomorrow's performance .
      (C) She doesn't intend to go to the play.
      (D) She can't work at the theater tomorrow.
16. (A) She hasn't seen Kate.
      (B) Kate has changed her plans.
      (C) The man had misunderstood her.
      (D) The man should go to New York next week.

17. (A) He doesn't want to attend the graduation
ceremony.
      (B) He's attended only one graduation ceremony.
      (C) The woman doesn't have to attend the
graduation ceremony.
      (D) Attendance is taken at the graduation
ceremony.

18. (A) Someone from the housing office fixed the
faucet.
      (B) Allen called the housing office for her.
      (C) She replaced the faucet.
      (D) Allen repaired the faucet.

19. (A) He didn't know that the woman was class
treasurer.
      (B) He doesn't want to be treasurer.
      (C) He doesn't think the woman should run for
office.
      (D) He didn't know the elections were today.
20. (A) He doesn't have much time for tennis .
      (B) He's enthusiastic about his new courses.
      (C) He plays tennis better than she does .
      (D) He's not very interested in his school work.
21. (A) He'll drive the woman to the paint store.
      (B) He doesn't really like the painting .
      (C) He'll hold the painting for the woman .
      (D) He doesn't know where the painting is .
22. (A) The man hurried through breakfast.
      (B) The room is too warm for a sweater.
      (C) The man will be late if he doesn't hurry.
      (D) The man's appearance shows that he was
rushed.
23 .(A) The doctor wasn't feeling well .
      (B) He didn't see the new doctor.
      (C) The doctor isn't new to the infirmary.
      (D) He met the doctor at a conference.
24. (A) Pay Marsha for the bookshelf.
      (B) Ask Marsha where the bookshelf is.
      (C) Check for the book on Marsha's shelf.
      (D) Ask Marsha if she has an extra bookshelf.

25. (A)The man can get some paper at the new
store.
      (B) She just opened a new box of paper.
      (C) She'll type the man's paper at her place .
      (D) The man can buy today's paper at the
newsstand.
26. (A) She saw only part of it.
      (B) She couldn't go to see it.
      (C) She wasn't in charge of it.
      (D) She didn't understand it.
27. (A) He doesn't like old movies.
      (B) He didn't see a large number of movies .
      (C) He saw more movies than the woman did.
      (D) His children have seen many movies.
28. (A) The airport is closed due to bad weather.
      (B) An earlier closure affected the airport's
schedule.
      (C) The flight is following its regular schedule.
      (D) The plane will return to its point of departure.
29. (A) She hadn't begun to study biology.
      (B) She hadn't liked the previous biology course.
      (C) She did very well in elementary biology.
      (D) She'd already taken all the biology courses .
30. (A) She recently moved to Miami.
      (B) She needed a vacation.
      (C) She'll leave for Miami soon.
      (D) She was pleased to get his postcard.

Part  B
Questions  31-34
31. (A) It's too noisy.
      (B) It's not convenient to the university.
      (C) The heating system is defective.
      (D) The owner is unpleasant.

32. (A) Tell the owner two months in advance that
she's moving.
      (B) Alert the housing authorities to her problem.
      (C) Move to another apartment in the same
building.
      (D) Leave by the end of the month.

33. (A) It must be on a higher floor.
      (B) It must have quiet surroundings.
      (C) It must be within driving distance of the
university.
      (D) It must be in a new building.

34. (A) Rent would be very expensive.
      (B) Public transportation wouldn't be available.
      (C) Apartment complexes in Windsor are old.
      (D) Apartments in Windsor tend to be noisy.
Questions  35-38
35. (A) Start a new program at State College.
      (B) Study at a different school.
      (C) Find a summer job.
      (D) Improve her grades.

36. (A) Journalism.
      (B) Science.
      (C) Management.
      (D) Art.

37. (A) Its reputation isn't as good as State College's .
      (B) She can't get a good recommendation there .
      (C) The registration office hasn't answered her
letters yet .
      (D) She may not get accepted there .

38. (A) Use her professors as references.
      (B) Study more to improve her grades .
      (C) Think more positively about the State College
program .
      (D) Write to the head of the art department .

Part  C
Questions  39-41
39. (A) Summer vacation.
      (B) The housing office.
      (C) Resident advisers.
      (D) Check-out procedures.

40. (A) Register for summer school.
      (B) Repair holes in room walls.
      (C) Return their keys to the housing office.
      (D) Call the housing office.

41. (A) Their summer addresses.
      (B) Any damage to their rooms.
      (C) When they plan to leave.
      (D) Questions for the housing office.
Questions  42-45
42. (A) The liquefaction of gas.
      (B) Techniques used for refrigeration.
      (C) Materials used to make industrial containers
      (D) The cost of transporting natural gas

43. (A) It becomes brittle.
      (B) It expands.
      (C) It oxidizes.
      (D) It bends.

44. (A) It has a low melting point.
      (B)It's expensive.
      (C) It often contains impurities.
      (D) Its properties are unpredictable.

45. (A) Oxygen.
      (B) Aluminum.
      (C) Nickel.
      (D) Boron.
Questions  46-50
46. (A) Behavior of owls in the wild.
      (B) Experiments at the London Zoo.
      (C) An investigation of accidental animal deaths.
      (D) An increase in insects at the zoo.

47. (A) Owl cages.
      (B) Insecticide spray.
      (C) Sawdust.
      (D) Mousetraps.

48. (A) Rats.
      (B) Owls.
      (C) Mice.
      (D) Insects.

49. (A) They choked on sawdust.
      (B) They were fed contaminated mice.
      (C) They were bitten by deadly insects.
      (D) They escaped from the zoo.

50. (A)To illustrate a principle about environmental
poisons.
      (B) To demonstrate the usefulness of chemicals.
      (C) To show how bookkeepers raise mice in
captivity.
      (D) To prove a point about the building industry.



Structure
                Directions : Questions 1-4- are complete sentences you will see, four words or phrases, market (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best complete the sentences .
1.       A dominant animal is best defined as one …. Actions are not constrained by possible responses of its fellows.
a)     With
b)    That is
c)    Whose *
d)    Where its

2.       In general, …. Have a professional obligation to protect confidential sources of information.
a.        Which journalists
b.       Journalists, they
c.        Journalists*
d.       Journalists that

3.       Cobalt resembles iron and nickel in tensile strength, appreance,…
a.        Is hard
b.       Although hard
c.        Has hardness
d.       And hardness*

4.       …. Explores the nature of guilt and responsibility and builds to a remarkable conclusion.
a.        The written beautifully novel
b.       The beautifully written novel*
c.        The novel beautifully written
d.       The written novel beautifully

5.       He is a man …. To have the vision of an eagle and courage of a lion.
a.        Who appears*
b.       He appears
c.        Who appear
d.       He appear

6.    …. Getting the highest result in the class, john still had problems with his teacher.
a.        Despite of
b.       In spite of
c.        Even though*
d.       Nonetheless

7.    This new service will be available to all users …. Up for paid membership.
a.        That signed*
b.       That signed it
c.        Which signed
d.       Sign

8.    I think Jane deserved to be fired for her ….
a.        Totally behavior irresponsible
b.       Behavior totally irresponsible
c.        Irresponsible totally behavior
d.       Totally irresponsible behavior*

9.    Acute hearing helps most animals sense the approach of thunderstorms long before people ….
a.        Hear
b.       Hearing them
c.        Do*
d.       Do them

10.    Of all economically important phants,palms have been …
a.        The least studied*
b.       Study less and less
c.        Study the least
d.       To study the less

11.    With the passing of the time and the emoarchement of people, the habitat of garillas … to decrease
a.        Containing
b.       Continius
c.        Which continue
d.       Continue*

12.    …. Social meeting birds that build their nests in tress and on clifis.
a.        Most stocks are*
b.       Stocks most
c.        The most stocks
d.       Most are stocks

13 ….. was awarded the Nobel Prize in physics for this work on the phoneletric effect.
a.        That enstein
b.       It was enstein
c.        Enstein who
d.       Enstein*

14. .Emma Thompson was nominated for an Academy Award as both a Screenwriher…an actress in 1996.
a)       Also
b)       Or
c)       In addition
d)       And*

15. Because of its warm tropical climate, howards…. Subzero temperature.
a)       Almost experience never
b)       Expreriance never almost
c)       Experiences almost never
d)       Almost never expreriance*

16. from the inception of his long and distingshed carrer, frank lieyd wright was  concerned with how … architecture with topography.
a)       Integrating
b)       To integrate*
c)       Did the integrate
d)       Integrated

17. Egyptian pyramids were regurally robbed despire their intricate pessegewrys, byzantine mazes, and …
a)       Walls which were false
b)       They had false walls
c)       False walls
d)       Walls of falsity*

18. The Duncan sofa, …. Is highly valued in todays antique furniture market.
a)       A colonial masterpiece*
b)       A colonial masterpiece which
c)       It is a colonial masterpiece that
d)       Whose colonial masterpiece

19.Maine’s coastline is a major attraction and vista of sandy beaches contrasted… rockbound shoreline.
a)       To the rugged*
b)       By the rugged
c)       On the rugged
d)       At the rugged

20. At the seventh international ballet competions, Fernando Bujones won the first, gold modal ever … to a Unites States make dancer
a)       That award
b)       Should be awarding
c)       To be awarded*
d)       To award

21. the best-known diffuse nebuls is the great Orion Nebuls …. Can be seen by the narked eye.
a)       It
b)       Which*
c)       One
d)       Who

22. Over time the young students will perfect the art of piano playing. After all, such …. Needs delicate handling .
a)       A tuned instrument finely
b)       A finely instrument tuned
c)       An instrument tuned finely
d)       A finely tuned instrument*

23, before Johnson and smith reached great heights in the business world, … encountered many great difficults in promoting their theories and methods.
a)    They*
b)    Who
c)    Which
d)    He

24. …. Air is composed of about 78 percent nitrogen and only about 21 percent oxygen is a little known fact on the streets.
a)    How that*
b)    When
c)    That*
d)    However

25. Nearly all treets contain a mix of polymets that can burn like petrolurn ….property extracted.
a)    If*
b)    Is
c)    After
d)    When it

26. Mr. Smith is going to plant this rosebush in his…
a)    Flower garden*
b)    Garden of flower
c)    Garden flower
d)    Flowers garden

27. My sister needs to buy some clothes for her … daughter.
a)    Two-year-old
b)    Two-years-age
c)    Two-years-old*
d)    Two-years-olds

28. I wish that they could … to the party last night .
a)    Come*
b)    Be coming
c)    Have come
d)    Had come

29. What would you have done if you … to make that decision.
a)    Have had
b)    Had
c)    Had have
d)    Had had*

30. three responsibilities … are to search out, identify, and assess patentable inventions and technologies.
a)    To a patent manager
b)    With a patent manager
c)    On a patent manager
d)    Of a patent manager*

31. too little thyroid hormone will lead to sluggishness and inertia; too much results in rapid heartbeat …. And higher oxygen consumption.
a)    It increases mental activity
b)    Increased mental activity*
c)    Mental activity to increase
d)    Mental activity is increased

32. …. Of Willa Catha presents an unadorned picture of life on the prairies of the Midwestern United States during the 19th century.
a)    The novels that
b)    That the novels
c)    The novels which
d)    The novels*

33. With neither a naturally aggreasive disposition …. A particularly large size, the mimic octopus survives quite easily because o
Of its natural adaptions.
a)    And
b)    With
c)    Nor*
d)    Or

34. circulating column of air at the core of a tornado …. In excess of 250 miles per hour.
a)    Almoust never reachers*
b)    Reachers almoust never
c)    Almoust reachers never
d)    Reachers never almoust

35. Unless an observer knows … an eclips properly, severe retinal and cornea darmage can results.
a)    To observing
b)    How observe
c)    How to observe*
d)    To have observed

36. pipeline network, …. 4.000 miles, provides natural gas from texas to homes and industries on the east coast.
a)    Totaling
b)    Totals*
c)    Total*
d)    It totals

37. Ulysses S. Grant …. Showed great magnanimity in receiving the surrender of his arch-rival, Robert. E Lee at the end of the Civil War.
a)    That was the supreme commander of northern forces
b)    Who supremely commanding northern forces*
c)    He was the supreme commander of northern forces
d)    The supreme commander of northern forces.

38. John knows, that he had better … his algebra skills before the mict-form exam
a)    Brush up on*
b)    Brush on up
c)    Brushing up on
d)    Brushing on up

39. …. For his poetry but also for his six-volume life of Abraham lincon
a)    Not only Carl Sandburg is know*
b)    Carl Sandburg, knowing not only
c)    Carl Sandburg is known not only
d)    Carl sanburg, who is known not only

40. Jane Addams, …. Lived to see the realization of many of the reforms for which she fought
a)    Her social work and humanitarianism
b)    Whose social work and humanitarism
c)    She was a social worker and humanitariam
d) Social worker and humanitarian*
























Reading
The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually and the first woman to win this prize was Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner in 1905. In fact, her work inspired the creation of the Prize. The first American woman to win this prize was Jane Addams, in 1931. However, Addams is best known as the founder of  Hull House.
        Jane Addams was born in 1860, into a wealthy family. She was one of a small number of women in her generation to graduate from college. Her commitment to improving the lives of those around her led her to work for social reform and world peace. In the 1880s Jane Addams travelled to Europe. While she was in London, she visited a ‘settlement house’ called Toynbee Hall. Inspired by Toynbee Hall, Addams and her friend, Ellen Gates Starr, opened Hull House in a neighborhood of slums in Chiacago in 1899. Hull House provided a day care center for children of  working mothers, a community kitchen, and visiting nurses. Addams and her staff gave classes in English literacy, art, and other subjects. Hull House also became a meeting place for clubs and labor unions. Most of the people who worked with Addams in Hull House were well educated, middle-class women. Hull House gave them an opportunity to use their education and it provided a training ground for careers in social work.
        Before World War I, Addams was probably the most beloved woman in America. In a newspaper poll that asked, “Who among our contemporaries are of the most value to the community?”, Jane Addams was rated second, after Thomas Edison. When she opposed America’s involvement in World War I, however, newspaper editors called her a traitor and a fool, but she never changed her mind. Jane Addams was a strong champion of several other causes. Until 1920, American women could not vote. Addams joined in the movement for women’s suffrage and was a vice president of the National American Woman Suffrage Association. She was a founding member of the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP), and was president of the Women’s International League for Peace and Freedom. . Her reputation was gradually restored during the last years of her life. She died of cancer in 1935.

12    With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned?
(a)    The first award of the Nobel Peace Prize to an American woman
(b)   A woman’s work for social reform and world peace
(c)    The early development of Social Work in America
(d)   Contributions of educated women to American society

13  Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(a)    the work of Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner was an inspiration 
 to Jane Addams
(b)   Jane Addams is most famous for her opening of Hull House
(c)    those who lived near Hull House had very poor literacy skills
(d)   Jane addams considered herself as a citizen of the world rather than of one particular country

14  The word “commitment” in line 6 is closest in meaning to
                  (a) involvement
                  (b) obligation
                  (c) dedication
                  (d) enthusiasm

     15  Jane Addams was inspired to open Hull House because:
      (a)  it gave educated women an opportunity to use their education and develop
                        careers in social work
(b)   she traveled to Europe in the 1880s
(c)    she visited Toynbee Hall
(d)   she was invited by a ‘settlement house’ in Chicago

16    The word “their” in line 15 refers to
                  (a) children of working mothers
                  (b) middle-class women
                  (c) visiting nurses
(b)   labor union members

17    The word “contemporaries” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
(a)    people of the same time
(b)   famous people still alive
(c)    elected officials
(d)   people old enough to vote

      18  According to the passage, Jane Addams’ reputation was damaged when she
                  (a) allowed Hull House to become a meeting place for clubs and labor unions
(c)    joined in the movement for women’s suffrage
                  (c)  became a founding member of the NAACP
                  (d)  opposed America’s involvement in World War I

19    Where in the passage does the author mention the services provided by Hull House?
(a)    lines 5-10
(b)   lines 10-15
(c)    lines  15-20
(d)   lines  20-25

There are two main hypotheses when it comes to explaining the emergence of modern humans. The ‘Out of Africa’ theory holds that homo sapiens burst onto the scene as a new species around 150,000 to 200,000 years ago in Africa and subsequently replaced archaic humans such as the Neandertals. The other model, known as multi-regional evolution or regional continuity, posits far more ancient and diverse roots for our kind. Proponents of this view believe that homo sapiens arose in Africa some 2 million years ago and evolved as a single species spread across the Old World, with populations in different regions linked through genetic and cultural exchange.
       Of these two models, Out of Africa, which was originally developed based on fossil evidence, and supported by much genetic research, has been favored by the majority of evolution scholars. The vast majority of  these genetic studies have focused on DNA from living populations, and although some small progress has been made in recovering DNA from Neandertal that appears to support multi-regionalism, the chance of recovering nuclear DNA from early human fossils is quite slim at present. Fossils thus remain very much a part of the human origins debate.
      Another means of gathering theoretical evidence is through bones. Examinations of early modern human skulls from Central Europe and Australia dated to between 20,000 and 30,000 years old have suggested that both groups apparently exhibit traits seen in their Middle Eastern and African predecessors. But the early modern specimens from Central Europe also display Neandertal traits, and the early modern Australians showed affinities to archaic Homo from Indonesia. Meanwhile, the debate among paleoanthropologists continues , as supporters of the two hypotheses challenge the evidence and conclusions of each other.

30                The passage primarily discusses which of the following
(a)     Evidence that supports the “Out of Africa” theory
(b)    Two hypotheses and some  evidence on the human origins debate
(c)     The difficulties in obtaining agreement among theorists on the human origins debate
(d)    That fossils remain very much a part of the human origins debate

31                The word “emergence” in line 1 is closest in meaning to
(a)     complexity
(b)    development
(c)     appearance
(d)    decline

32    The word “proponents” in line 6 is closet in meaning to
(a)     experts
(b)    advocates
(c)     inspectors
(d)    historians

33    All of the following are true except
(a)     three methods of gathering evidence are mentioned in the passage
(b)    the multi-regional model goes back further in history.
(c)     the Out of Africa model has had more support from scholars
(d)    DNA studies offer one of the best ways in future to provide clear evidence.

34    The word “slim” in line 14 is closest in meaning to
(a)     small
(b)    narrow
(c)     thin
(d)    difficult

35    Which of the following is not true
(a)     the vast majority of genetic studies have focused on living populations
(b)    early modern human skulls all support the same conclusions
(c)     both hypotheses focus on Africa as a location for the new species.
(d)    early modern Australian skulls have similarities to those from Indonesia.

36    In line 18, the word “their ” refers to which of the following
(a)     Middle Easterners and Africans
(b)    skulls
(c)     central Europeans and Australians
(d)    traits

37    Which of the following is NOT true about the two hypotheses
(a)     Both hypotheses regard Neandertals to be the predecessors of modern humans
(b)    Genetic studies have supported both hypotheses
(c)     Both hypotheses cite Africa as an originating location.
(d)    One hypothesis dates the emergence of  homo sapiens much earlier than the other.

38    It can be inferred from the passage that
(a)     there is likely to be an end to the debate in the near future
(b)    the debate will interest historians to take part in
(c)     the debate is likely to be less important in future
(d)    there is little likelihood that the debate will die down     

39    According to the passage, the multi-regional evolution model posits far more diverse roots for our kind because
(a)     Evidence from examinations of early modern human skulls has come from a number of different parts of the world.
(b)    DNA from Neandertal appears to support multi-regionalism
(c)     Populations in different regions were linked through genetic and cultural exchange
(d)    This has been supported by fossil evidence







Though they were not trained naturalists, Meriwether Lewis and William Clark in their explorations of North America in the early nineteenth century came across enough unfamiliar birds, mammals, and reptiles to fill a zoo. In keeping with President Jefferson's orders they took careful note of 122 species and subspecies that were unknown to science and in many cases native only to the West. Clark made sketches of any particularly intriguing creature. He and Lewis also collected animal hides and horns and bird skins with such care that a few of them were still intact nearly two centuries later. While Lewis and Clark failed to meet the mythological monsters reputed to dwelt in the West, they did unearth the bones of a 45 - foot dinosaur. Furthermore, some of the living beasts they did come upon, such as the woolly mountain goat and the grizzly bear, were every bit as odd or as fearsome as any myth. In their collector's enthusiasm, they even floated a prairie dog out of its burrow by pouring in five barrelfuls of water, then shipped the frisky animal to Jefferson alive and yelping.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) President Jefferson's pets
(B) Collector's techniques for capturing wildlife
(C) Discovery of animal species by Lewis and Clark
(D) Jobs for trained naturalists

2. "In keeping with" in line 3 could best be replaced by which of the following?
(A) Following               (B) Managing                (C) Retaining                (D) Delaying

3. It can be inferred from the passage that President Jefferson ordered Lewis and Clark to
(A) bring back animals for a zoo                       (B) train to be naturalists
(C) compile sketches for a book                        (D) record newly discovered species of animals

4. In line 8, what does the word "they" refer to?
(A) Lewis and Clark                                         (B) Dinosaur bones
(C) Mythological monsters                                (D) Western dwellers

5. The author compares which of the following animals to mythological monsters?
(A) The grizzly bear  
(B) The prairie dog       (C) A tropical bird        (D) A poisonous reptile

6. According to the passage, Lewis and Clark poured water into a prairie dog's burrow because they wanted to
(A) bathe the animal                                           (B) capture the animal
(C) give the animal water                                   (D) teach the animal to float



Although management principles have been implemented since ancient times, most
management scholars trace the beginning of modern management thought back to the early
1900s, beginning with the pioneering work of Frederick Taylor (1856-1915). Taylor was the
first person to study work scientifically. He is most famous for introducing techniques of time
and motion study, differential piece rate systems, and for systematically specializing the work
of operating employees and managers. Along with other pioneers such as Frank and Lillian
Gilbreth, Taylor set the stage, labeling his philosophy and methods “scientific management’. At
that time, his philosophy, which was concerned with productivity, but which was often
misinterpreted as promoting worker interests at the expense of management, was in marked
contrast to the prevailing industrial norms of worker exploitation.
The time and motion study concepts were popularized by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth. The
Gilbreths  had 12 children. By analyzing his children’s dishwashing and bedmaking chores,
this  pioneer efficiency expert, Frank Gilbreth, hit on principles whereby workers could
eliminate waste motion. He was memorialized by two of his children in their 1949 book called
“Cheaper by the Dozen”.
The Gilbreth methods included using stop watches to time worker movements and special
tools (cameras and special clocks) to monitor and study worker performance, and also involved
identification of “therbligs” (Gilbreth spelled backwards) – basic motions used in production
jobs. Many of these motions and accompanying times have been used to determine how long it
should take a skilled worker to perform a given job. In this way an industrial engineer can get a
handle on the approximate time it should take to produce a product or provide a service.
However, use of work analysis in this way is unlikely to lead to useful results unless all five
work dimensions are considered: physical, psychological, social, cultural, and power.

40. What is the passage primarily about?
(a) The limitations of pioneering studies in understanding human behavior
(b) How time and motion studies were first developed
(c) The first applications of a scientific approach to understanding human behavior
(d) The beginnings of modern management theory





41.  The word “ which” in line 9 refers to
(a) scientific management
(b) philosophy
(c) productivity
(d) time and motion study

42. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
(a) workers welcomed the application of scientific management
(b) Talor’s philosophy is different from the industrial norms
(c) by the early 1900s science had reached a stage where it could be
applied to the workplace
(a) workers were no longer exploited after the introduction of scientific management.

43.  The word “prevailing” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
(a) predominant
(b) broadly accepted
(c) prevalent
(d) common

44. According to the passage, Frank Gilbreth discovered how workers could
eliminate waste motion by
(a) using special tools such as cameras and clocks
(b) using stop watches
(c) applying scientific management principles
(d) watching his children do their chores

45. The basic motions used in production jobs were given which one of
following names by Frank Gilbreth?
(a) dimensions
(a) gilreths
(c) therbligs
(d) monitors

46. According to the passage, the time it takes a skilled worker to perform the
motion of a given job can be measured by using:
(a) stop watches
(b) all 5 work dimensions
(c) special tools
(d) therbligs

47. The word “motions” in line 20 is closest in meaning to
(a) stop watches
(b) habits
(c) actions
(d) special tools

48. Where in the passage does the author comment that the principles of scientific
management were often misunderstood?
(a) Lines 1-5
(b) Lines 6-10
(c) Lines 11-15
(d) Lines 16-20

49. The word “ dimensions” in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(a) sizes
(b) extents
(c) aspects
(d) standards

50. All of the following are true except
(a) scientific management was concerned with productivity.
(b) the beginnings of modern management thought commenced in the 19 th century.
(c) Frank Gilbreth’s fame was enhanced by two of his children writing a book.
(d) analyzing work to increase productivity is not likely to be useful unless all of the
dimensions are considered.